Enjoy... But remember
"Don't give in to winning the argument
and losing one of your eternal crowns..."
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I like to ask Interested or anyone else who suscribe to the non-literalistic view or the view that the event (Daniel's abomination) Jesus mentioned was fulfilled in the 1st Century, how do you interprete the tribulation period described in Matt 24:16-24 then? Which period will Jesus be referring that to, if it's not the end time scenario just before the Return of Jesus?
Just for discussion only...not to argue over who's right or wrong. Thank you and God bless all who have contributed to aid our understanding of Matt 24 thus far.
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Hi SBGrace by Interested , 2001, Sep 30
You're not explaining much here... by saved-by-grace, 2001, Sep 30
Warning...the author's background need to be checked further. by saved-by-grace, 2001, Sep 30
Hi SBGrace, by Interested , 2001, Sep 30
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